6
$\begingroup$

Consider a coin-flipping game that costs $1 to play.

  • If heads, I win $3.
  • If tails, I win nothing.

I start playing this game with $100, and continue playing infinitely. Am I guaranteed to eventually lose all my money?

$\endgroup$
4
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ I assume by guaranteed, you mean "with probability 1"? There of course exist sequences where you never lose your money $\endgroup$
    – xnor
    Commented Nov 5 at 22:19
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Since there is a probable event that you will lose all your money it means that in the INFINITY case it will happen! This probability is presented in the answers below. $\endgroup$
    – Moti
    Commented Nov 6 at 3:11
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ probability to reach any value is strictly positive albeit small to very small for small values including 0 (starting from 100) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6 at 3:48
  • $\begingroup$ @xnor There are in fact infinitely many such sequences (by Pólya's Recurrence). The only problem is that the sum of their probabilities is exactly zero. Since we're now in the territory of uncountable infinities (the powerset of $\mathbb{Z}$), the proof requires a careful application of the measure theory. This margin is too narrow etc., so I'll leave it to you as an exercise. $\endgroup$
    – user51946
    Commented Nov 6 at 12:47

4 Answers 4

12
$\begingroup$

We can model your winnings as an infinite Discrete-Time Markov Chain, where the state is your current dollar amount. From state $i$, you either move to state $i-1$ or to state $i+2$, each with probability 1/2. Starting from state $i$, we can calculate the probability of ever reaching the state $i-1$, i.e. losing a dollar. Call this probability $x$.

The crucial question is whether $x < 1$. A full proof is beyond the scope of this answer, but note that after a large number of flips $n$, the distribution of the current winnings is approximately a normal distribution with mean $100 + n/2$ and standard deviation $O(\sqrt{n})$. Examining the formula for the tail of a normal distribution, we see that the chance of a normal distribution falling $\Omega(\sqrt{n})$ standard deviations below the mean is $e^{-\Omega(n)}$. This series converges, so it gets increasingly rare to ever fall below \$$100$, if it hasn't happened in the first few steps. So $x < 1$.

Now, let's calculate $x$. There is a $1/2$ chance of immediately moving from $i$ to $i-1$, and a $1/2$ chance of moving to $i+2$, from where we will need to descend three times to reach $i-1$. Each of these descents is independent, so $x$ satisfies the equation:

$$x = 1/2 + x^3/2$$

The unique solution in the interval $(0, 1)$ is $x = (\sqrt{5} - 1)/2 = \phi - 1 \approx 0.618$.

To run out of money, we must lose \$$100$. This requires losing a dollar 100 times, independently. This happens with probability $x^{100} \approx 10^{-21}$.

It is very unlikely that you will ever run out of money, as you play the game infinitely.

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ This seems somewhat incorrect—what if we go to \(i+2\) twice—or more than twice? This doesn't seem to account for that. $\endgroup$
    – Someone
    Commented Nov 5 at 22:49
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ @Someone x is the probability of ever reaching i-1, starting from i. If the first flip is heads, the required sequence goes: i -> i+2, then ever reach i+1, then ever reach i, then ever reach i-1. The latter three steps each occur independently with probability x. $\endgroup$
    – isaacg
    Commented Nov 5 at 22:50
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, that makes sense. $\endgroup$
    – Someone
    Commented Nov 5 at 22:51
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Everything is likely fine, except the last, concluding sentence. An event with a positive probability occurs with the probability of exactly 1, since the sequence of coin tosses is infinite. The probability of the loss may decrease if your bank grows, but it remains positive for the finite amount of money. $\endgroup$
    – user51946
    Commented Nov 6 at 12:56
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ @kkmmistrustsSE The probability I quoted is the probability of ever reaching $0, in the entire infinite future. $\endgroup$
    – isaacg
    Commented Nov 6 at 14:45
6
$\begingroup$

Answer:

No

Explanation:

First, let's map the problem to a random walk on the nonnegative numbers, with the initial position $100$ and you move one unit to the left with probability $1/2$ and two units to the right with probability $1/2$. Each walk that eventually lands you at zero involves $k$ right-steps (so $2k$ units to the right) and $100+2k$ left-steps, where $k$ can be any nonnegative integer. For a given $k$, there are several moments in time you could have made the $k$ right-steps. In fact, there are at most $\binom{100+3k}{k}$ moments where you could have made the $k$ right steps (this is an overestimate because we can't take all the left-steps before the right-steps, but we need only an upper bound on the probability that you will reach $0$, so this is okay). Therefore, the number of walks involving $k$ right-steps is at most $\binom{100+3k}{k}$. The probability for such a walk is $2^{-(100+3k)}$ because it involves a total of $100+3k$ steps, so the probability that you will reach $0$ is at most $$\sum_{k=0}^\infty \binom{100+3k}{k}2^{-(100+3k)} < 10^{-20}.$$

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Non sequitur. An upper bound on the probability of losing the game doesn't tell you that you won't lose. Neither does it tell that you will. You want to prove that the lower bound on the probability of losing the game is 0. Which is not true, so you cannot. :) $\endgroup$
    – user51946
    Commented Nov 6 at 10:50
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ The question only asks if losing is certain. This answers that. $\endgroup$
    – Someone
    Commented Nov 6 at 17:55
0
$\begingroup$

Yes, you are guaranteed to eventually lose all your money if you continue playing infinitely. Although you have a positive expected value, each flip is independent, and there is significant variance. There will be long streaks of tails (losing streaks) that can deplete your balance. Since you have a finite starting balance of $100, you are not infinitely resilient to these streaks of losses.

This is due to the concept of gambler’s ruin in probability theory, which states that with infinite play, the probability of going broke approaches certainty unless you have an infinite bankroll.

$\endgroup$
8
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ This could get quite mathematical. You might be right, but it's not clear given that the 'ups' are bigger than the 'downs' . To be convincing the argument would need lots of maths and then would be more suitable for Mathematics Stack Exchange $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 5 at 21:12
  • $\begingroup$ But this game has a positive expected value—on average, the player gains 50 cents. $\endgroup$
    – Someone
    Commented Nov 5 at 22:51
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ @Someone I am not mathematically inclined, but I have a weird suspicion he's correct. Because play is infinite, if we imagine play as an infinite sequence of results (Heads, Tails, Heads, H, T, H, H, H, etc. etc.), the probability that the sequence somewhere contains a finite subsequence with a number of losing flips equal to the bankroll currently available is 1 (P=1). en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almost_surely $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6 at 9:35
  • $\begingroup$ @Oray gambler's ruin does not apply here, as it requires a negative expected value, which this game does not have (this game has a positive one) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6 at 9:49
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ For any integer $N$, you will eventually see streaks of $N$ losses in a row; however, in almost all cases, those streaks of $N$ losses will happen so far in the future that you'll have much more than $N$ dollars, and won't be harmed by the streak. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6 at 14:40
0
$\begingroup$

This is more of a maths questions, but the answer is no, you are not guaranteed to lose all your money. I note that the other answers, at this time, talk about the likelihood of winning, but that is not what you asked.

A guaranteed loss means that there is no path through the game in which you don't lose your money. If we can find just a single path in which you don't lose; then we have proved the point. This is easy to do; in fact there are many. The obvious one is that you always flip heads. It becomes increasingly unlikely as you play more iterations of the game, but however small the chance is, it is never non-zero.

The conditions of the game, such as the starting funds and the amount you win are irrelevant and a distraction. You could start with a single dollar instead of 100 and win 1 cent instead of $3. The answer is the same.

$\endgroup$
5
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ “The obvious one is that you always flip heads.” Wonderful! And what is the probability that you'll throw an infinite sequence of heads? $\endgroup$
    – user51946
    Commented Nov 6 at 11:16
  • $\begingroup$ @kkmmistrustsSE - the probability is non-zero, which is all it needs to be $\endgroup$
    – Qwerky
    Commented Nov 6 at 12:21
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Nope. It is $\lim_{N\to\infty} 2^{-N}$, which is exactly zero. $\endgroup$
    – user51946
    Commented Nov 6 at 12:30
  • $\begingroup$ It wasn't me who downvoted you. Looks like most answers, both arguing for a no and for a yes, got downvoted without an explanation. Someone seems to have had a neurotic breakdown. :) $\endgroup$
    – user51946
    Commented Nov 6 at 13:22
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ @kkmmistrustsSE It is exactly zero, but that doesn't mean it's impossible. We cannot conclude that things with probability 0 never happen, or that things with probability 1 surely happen - at best we can conclude they almost never or almost surely happen. Even having a 100% chance of losing all your money doesn't actually guarantee that it occurs. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6 at 14:05

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.