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There were three men. One was deaf, the other was blind and the third was mute. One day the deaf man kissed the blind man's wife. The mute man saw this and he wants to tell it to the blind man, but he cannot speak. So how does the mute man explain the situation to the blind man.

Just to give a clarification regarding the question, I want to specify in detail these points: There were only three of them and the blind man's wife and no one else in the situation.

The mute man doesn't know how to write Braille.

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closed as off-topic by Aza Aug 5 '16 at 20:28

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    $\begingroup$ write on his skin, like Helen Keller?????...:P $\endgroup$ – Debanjan Chakraborty Nov 13 '14 at 9:58
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    $\begingroup$ @tobyink to me it did :D you could make them kiss in order to have him glimpse that her "flavour" was changed... $\endgroup$ – Noldor130884 Nov 13 '14 at 11:28
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    $\begingroup$ If they were only 3 in the situation, where does the wife come from? $\endgroup$ – Danubian Sailor Nov 13 '14 at 11:28
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    $\begingroup$ Can you further clarify whether the deaf man, the mute man, and the blind man are all separate people, or is it possible there is one person with two disabilities? Your phrasing "One was deaf, the other was blind and the one was mute" is odd and slightly unidiomatic, so I am not sure whether it is deliberate, or because English is not your first language. $\endgroup$ – tobyink Nov 13 '14 at 12:51
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    $\begingroup$ Would it be possible for you to add attribution to the source of origin? As it stands, this post may qualify as plagiarism per our plagiarism policy. Thank you! $\endgroup$ – Aza Nov 14 '14 at 0:29

10 Answers 10

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Tap it out in morse code - or use text-to-speech technology.

Old answer:

He types up some braille and puts the blind man's hand on it.

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Of course with access to modern technology or other people, this would become trivial.

He could write it down and ask someone else without disabilities to read it to the blind man, or he could just send the blind man a message via SMS/Mail whatever, which can be processed text-to-speech.

If we assume there are only these three man and no access to special technology or other people (one could just place the riddle in a closed room in 16th century to assure this) there are two ways left - communication over a shared available sense (most likely touch) or by tricking the deaf man into telling the blind man.

The problem is for any kind of trick or secret language the blind and the mute man would have to share a secret-code or something, which has to be communicated first - and if we have a way to communicate that, we can just use this way for the vital information.

This leaves a trick where the deaf man will somehow reveal himself by accident (for example convincing him the blind man has left the room, he won't here when he comes back and talking to him about the kiss) or using violence or threats to persuade the perpetrator, which will be pretty hard, since the deaf man can tell the blind man anything and we cannot argue against it.

So the only ways left are conveying information by touch, morse, writing letters with somethimg the blind man can feel, or humming "he kissed your girl" ^^

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Even if the mute man doesn't know Braille, Morse etc., he can (probably, it's not forbidden by the condition) write normal letters on the sand etc.

The blind man can then 'read' those letters with his hands. Braille enables blind to read quickly, but they can feel the shape of the 'normal' letters and decode them, even if it takes more time.

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Have the mute man write a well-thought out letter to the blind man's wife explaining the folly of her ways and encouraging her to confess and apologise in order to achieve atonement and regain her honour

I would put this "solution" in a comment but I don't have enough kudos or whatever you call them

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The Mute takes the Blind man to the Deaf man and puts the blind man's hands on the Deaf man's face so he can identify him. The Mute then kisses the Blind man and then puts the Blind man's hand on his wife's face so that he can identify her.

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  • $\begingroup$ And why should the deaf man let him do this? On the premise that the deaf man and the wife don't want to tell, they don't have to take part in this... $\endgroup$ – Falco Nov 14 '14 at 11:44
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The blind man and the mute man know a language that the deaf man does not, so the mute man writes his message onto a piece of paper (in this language), and uses persuasion and/or trickery to get the deaf man to read the message out loud.

Some reservations I have about this answer:

1. How would one convince the deaf man to read something out loud?
2. The mute man can't be certain the deaf man will pronounce the foreign words appropriately if he hasn't ever tried this before

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"One was deaf, the other was blind and the one was mute."

The story goes like this, the deaf and the mute is the same person. He kissed the lady and now he feels sorry for the blind dude and wants to confess.So he writes that on a piece of paper and shows to this third guy who is neither deaf, blind or mute. And the third guy tells the blind dude. And the mute guy gets smacked on the face. :D

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Go to the wife and tell her (via letter, sign language whatever) that you have informed her husband and she has better talk to him about it. Better yet tell her the husband over heard the mute man discussing it with them. The wife then goes to 'explain' to her husband and reveals it all.

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I doubt it's the intended answer, but here's my take:

The mute man sends an invitation to meet at night to both the deaf man and the blind man's wife (asking her to bring her husband) without telling them that the other invitees would be coming. When they arrive and are all in the same place, the mute man removes any lighting (flips a switch if modern day, blows out a candle, etc.), kisses the wife loudly (mutes can still suck air through their lips), slaps the deaf man, and leaves into the dark to let everything unravel between the three.

At the very least, I think it would make for a fun solution.

Alternate solution:

The mute sends a blackmail letter to the wife posing as the deaf man saying that he will tell her husband if she doesn't pay him some amount of money she couldn't possibly have and that she should meet him at night at a specific time/place. Then send a letter to the deaf man inviting him to the same time/place as the wife but saying that she's been thinking about their kiss and wants more. The place chosen as the meeting place should have a hidden location nearby where the mute can lead the blind man and let him listen to the conversation. In the confusion of the meeting between the deaf man and wife, they're very likely going to discuss the kiss and much more.

Another one that I doubt was intended, but I think would be a fun solution.

Edit: I suppose the second answer might backfire/fail since the wife probably knows the deaf man is deaf and could/would use sign language.

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If the question is considered not plagiarised then this answer is not either

Source:http://www.riddlers.org/riddles/riddles/view/6928

One is blind, the other is deaf and the third is mute (cant speak)" This doesn't say that each of the three men have a disability. All we know for sure is that one of them is blind, one of them is deaf, and one of them is mute. Since you say that one is blind and the other is deaf, the blind person is not deaf. That leaves the deaf person who is also mute. Since he is the one who kissed, he would not tell on himself. But he doesn't have to since the 3rd person who has no disability could tell the blind man what happened.

Answer therefore is, the mute man cannot tell and if at all, the third person who has no disabilities or the wife herself or the deaf man himself could tell the blind man

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  • $\begingroup$ We have no evidence that the theoretical non-disabled person even saw the kiss. We only know that the mute person and the deaf person (who may or may not be the same person) saw it. (And that the blind person did not!) $\endgroup$ – tobyink Nov 13 '14 at 10:31
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    $\begingroup$ "So how does the mute man explain the situation to the blind man." $\endgroup$ – d'alar'cop Nov 13 '14 at 10:32
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    $\begingroup$ Yeah, I see. It is going to be plagiarism and thus deleted soonish then. But I think there may be something wrong with the wording of the Q/A even on that site $\endgroup$ – d'alar'cop Nov 13 '14 at 10:35
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    $\begingroup$ @COTO I have been told this earlier, at uni we used to have a much much more strict guidelines and I still dont subcribe to your version. Just because you can paraphrase do you think you can steal work of others? by you I dont mean "you" $\endgroup$ – skv Nov 13 '14 at 15:41
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    $\begingroup$ Lets wait and see if the answer is different... if my answer is THE answer, then we are just making copies of much less credible websites on SE which is not ideal at all, that too without any source being quoted, my own answer is not plagiarised because I have quoted the source $\endgroup$ – skv Nov 13 '14 at 16:59

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