Explain how π – 1 + 50 + ⅔ × 1000 is PLONK

Question

The clue comes from a Guardian Newspaper cluing competition from 2020.

It’s carelessly set down: π – 1 + 50 + ⅔ × 1000 (5)

The answer is PLONK.

That leaves: "+ ⅔ × 1000".

Is the K derived from 1000? If so ⅔ must be ON which I don't get.

Also it's "+ ⅔ × 1000" and not "+ ⅔ + 1000". Can "⅔ × 1000 = 666.666…" mean ONK somehow?

mattst · Accepted Answer · 2024-09-04 14:33:42Z

39

I would think that it is:

Pi - 1 (I) = P

50 = L

2/3 × 1000 = 2/3 x (ONE thousand) = (two-thirds of ONE) K = ONK

edited Sep 4 at 14:33

mattst

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answered Aug 31 at 17:02

kagami

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Tom · Accepted Answer · 2024-09-05 20:15:20Z

3

as "Pi + L + ONe K"

edited Sep 5 at 20:15

Tom

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answered Sep 2 at 13:52

mcbadger

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$\begingroup$ Welcome to Puzzling.SE! This could make a good answer in its own right if you were to edit it to quote the author's reasoning directly instead of just linking to it, as links tend to die out over time. $\endgroup$
– F1Krazy
Commented Sep 2 at 14:15
$\begingroup$ Thanks for the comments - edited to do this. $\endgroup$
– mcbadger
Commented Sep 3 at 9:25

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