JBL on Mathematics Stack Exchange gave a beautiful solution to this problem. Here I will explain JBL's solution in slightly more detail.
Proposition. Assume $m,n$ are positive integers. Consider only the pandigital numbers in base $mn$, allowing lead zeros. The count of such numbers $x$ whose multiple $nx$ is again such a number is equal to $$\frac{(n!)^m\cdot(m!)^n}{n}.$$
In particular when $m=5$ and $n=2$, the count of numbers that the OP had asked for is equal to $230400$.
Proof.
We first draw a complete bipartite directed graph as in the following image, with $m$ vertices on top, $n$ vertices on the bottom, and two-way edges in between every top vertex and every bottom vertex.
Consider a pandigital number $x$ with $nx$ also pandigital. Every digit $d$ of $x$ can be written as $d=am+b$ with $0\le a<n$ and $0\le b<m$ by Euclidean division by $m$, such that $n\cdot d$ in base-$mn$ has $a$ in its $mn$'s digit and $nb$ in its ones digit. We represent $d$ in the above graph by the upward (gray) edge pointing from the node "carry $a$" to the node "$b$ mod $m$". As an example, with $m=3$ and $n=2$, the pandigital base-6 number $012345_6$ can be represented as the following set of edges.
For two consecutive digits $d_1d_2$ of $x$ represented by edges $a_1\to b_1$ and $a_2\to b_2$ respectively, the digit $e_1$ of $nx$ in the same place as $d_1$ must be equal to $nb_1+a_2$ by carrying. So if a digit $e_1$ in $nx$ is written as $e_1=nb_1+a_2$ through Euclidean division by $n$, its corresponding arrow (pointing from "$b_1$ mod $m$" to "carry $a_2$") must join the tip of the arrow representing $d_1$ to the tail of the arrow representing $d_2$. In the previous example, $nx$ is equal to $2\cdot 012345_6=025134_6$, and the digits of $nx$ connects the previous set of arrows as follows: (sorry to those who are colorblind!)
Some observations:
- Since both $x$ and $nx$ are pandigital, every possible directed edge from the complete bipartite graph is visited precisely once.
- By the constraint on the number of digits of $x$ and $nx$, the chain of arrows must start from the node "carry $0$" (first digit of $x$) and end in the node "carry $0$" (last digit of $nx$).
- Therefore every arrow joins precisely two other arrows, and one trip following every arrow completes a tour through every edge in the directed graph, starting and ending at the node "carry $0$".
The last observation describes an Eulerian circuit on the directed graph. Furthermore, it's not hard to be convinced of that the pandigital numbers $x$ of question are in one-to-one correspondence with each Eulerian circuit of the directed graph starting and ending at "carry $0$".
Let $\textrm{pd}$ denote the number of pandigits $x$ such that $nx$ is pandigital, and let $\textrm{ec}$ denote the number of Eulerian circuits on the graph without a specified starting point. Then since each Eulerian circuit must pass through the node "carry $0$" $m$ times, each of which times could be a starting point of a pandigit $x$ of question, we have the identity $$\textrm{pd}=m\cdot\textrm{ec}$$
Now we use the BEST theorem, which states that $$\textrm{ec}=t(K_{m,n})\cdot\prod_{v\in V}(\deg(v)-1)!$$
where $t(K_{m,n})$ is the number of spanning trees of the undirected complete bipartite graph $K_{m,n}$, and $\prod_{v\in V}(\deg(v)-1)!$ is the product over the vertices $v$ of the complete bipartite graph $K_{m,n}$ with $\deg(v)$ being the degree of $v$ in the graph $K_{m,n}$. Easily, $$\prod_{v\in V}(\deg(v)-1)!=(n-1)!^m\cdot(m-1)!^n$$
The value of $t(K_{m,n})$ can be found by using the matrix-tree theorem. Starting from the graph $K_{m,n}$, we find its Laplacian matrix $$L=\left(\vphantom{\begin{matrix}0\\0\\0\\0\\0\end{matrix}}\right.\underbrace{\begin{matrix}n&0&0\\0&n&0\\0&0&n\\-1&-1&-1\\-1&-1&-1\end{matrix}}_{m}\;\;\underbrace{\begin{matrix}-1&-1\\-1&-1\\-1&-1\\m&0\\0&m\end{matrix}}_{n}\left.\vphantom{\begin{matrix}0\\0\\0\\0\\0\end{matrix}}\right)\begin{array}{l}\left.\vphantom{\begin{matrix}0\\0\\0\end{matrix}}\right\}\scriptstyle{m}\\\left.\vphantom{\begin{matrix}0\\0\end{matrix}}\right\}\scriptstyle{n}\end{array}$$
We remove the last row and column of $L$ (to account for the null vector $(1,1,\ldots,1)$) to get the matrix $$L^*=\begin{pmatrix}n&0&0&-1\\0&n&0&-1\\0&0&n&-1\\-1&-1&-1&m\end{pmatrix}$$
Then, the matrix-tree theorem states that $$t(K_{m,n})=\det(L^*)$$
is the determinant of $L^*$.
Finding this determinant involves some fairly routine row and column manipulations which can be seen in for example this online document. In the end, we get $$t(K_{m,n})=m^{n-1}\cdot n^{m-1}$$
Plugging in all the values we attained, we deduce that
\begin{align*}\textrm{pd}&=m\cdot\textrm{ec}\\&=m\cdot\left(m^{n-1}\cdot n^{m-1}\right)\cdot\left((n-1)!^m\cdot(m-1)!^n\right)\\&=\frac{(n!)^m\cdot(m!)^n}{n}\end{align*}
as desired. $\square$