A circle touches two sides of a triangle and two of its medians. Prove that the triangle is isosceles.
This problem came from the Mathematical Digest issue 62 (Jan 1986) which in turn cited a Russian mag called KVANT (meaning "Quantum").
A circle touches two sides of a triangle and two of its medians. Prove that the triangle is isosceles.
This problem came from the Mathematical Digest issue 62 (Jan 1986) which in turn cited a Russian mag called KVANT (meaning "Quantum").
As the triangles ADC and BEC have the same incircle and their areas are equal (half that of ABC), so are their perimeters
DC+DA+AC = EC+EB+BC
or, subtracting from both sides CD+CE+DA+EB
AE-EB = BD-DA.
This means that D and E lie on the same pair of hyperbolas with foci A and B. Since they also have the same distance to the base AB (half that of C) the triangle must be isosceles by symmetry.
Alternative Proof
By Pitot Theorem we have $|CE|+|MD| = |CD|+|ME|$ and since the centroid divides each median in the ratio 2:1, this means that $$\frac{1}{2}|AC| + \frac{1}{3}|AD| = \frac{1}{2}|BC|+\frac{1}{3}|BE|$$ Now let $|AB| = c, |BC| = a, |CA|=b, |AD|=m_a, |BE|=m_b$.
Then Apollonius' Theorem tells us that $$m_a = \sqrt{\frac{2b^2+2c^2-a^2}{4}}\,\,\,\,,\,\,\,\,m_b = \sqrt{\frac{2a^2+2c^2-b^2}{4}}$$ Substituting this in above and multiplying across by $6$ yields $$ 3a + \sqrt{2b^2+2c^2-a^2} = 3b + \sqrt{2a^2+2c^2-b^2}$$ $$\Rightarrow 3(a-b) + \sqrt{2b^2+2c^2-a^2} = \sqrt{2a^2+2c^2-b^2}$$ $$\Rightarrow 9(a-b)^2 + 6(a-b)\sqrt{2b^2+2c^2-a^2} + 2b^2+2c^2-a^2 = 2a^2+2c^2-b^2$$ $$\Rightarrow (a-b)\left(9(a-b) + 6\sqrt{2b^2+2c^2-a^2} - 3(a+b)\right) = 0$$ which means either $a=b$ or $\sqrt{2b^2+2c^2-a^2} = 2b-a$.
If it is the latter then $$2b^2+2c^2-a^2 = 4b^2-4ab+a^2 $$ $$\Rightarrow c^2 = b^2-2ab+a^2 = (b-a)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow c = \pm(b-a) $$ which only happens for a degenerate triangle (does not satisfy the triangle inequality).
Hence $a=b$
@loopwalt and @hexomino both gave excellent answers. I wanted to share the answer from the Mathematical Digest, because it's also elegant in its own way:
It starts the same way as @hexomino's proof (I didn't know it was called Pitot's Theorem!):
Since $CEMD$ circumscribes a circle, $CE+MD = CD + ME$ (Pitot's Theorem, but fun to prove). So (as in hexomino's proof):
$$\frac{1}{2}AC+\frac{1}{3}AD = \frac{1}{2}BC+\frac{1}{3}BE \tag1$$
Next, note that $\triangle ADC$ and $\triangle BEC$ have the same area ($\frac{1}{2}\triangle ABC$) and share a common incircle. This means that their perimeters are equal (another fun to prove and left as an exercise!). So $AD+\frac{1}{2}BC+AC = BE+\frac{1}{2}AC+BC$, which gives:
$$\frac{1}{2}AC+AD = \frac{1}{2}BC+BE \tag2$$
Now, $3\times(1)-(2)$ gives $AC=BC$