You are given two goniometric functions:
- Male: $g(\rho, \Theta) = \rho \, \cos\Theta \sin\Theta$
- Female: $f(\rho, \Theta) = \rho \, \cos^2\Theta$
Why are these two functions labeled "male" and "female"?
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asked Mar 20, 2015 at 9:23
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1$\begingroup$ Now explain me why the female's value at 90° is 0... $\endgroup$– leoll2Mar 22, 2015 at 14:25
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1 Answer
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Maybe
cos = X-chromosome and
sin = Y-chromosome
Male = XY = cos * sin
Female = XX = cos * cos
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$\begingroup$ Also, you can mention the relation between the X coordinate and cos and the Y coordinate and sin. $\endgroup$– dmgMar 20, 2015 at 10:52
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$\begingroup$ @dmg : It is X & Y 'chromosomes', you must have misread as 'coordinates' :) $\endgroup$– rvdMar 20, 2015 at 13:06
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2$\begingroup$ On the contrary, in the unit circle the cosine of the angle is equal to the displacement of X, the sine of the angle is the displacement of Y. That is why cos is X and sin is Y and not the other way around. $\endgroup$– dmgMar 20, 2015 at 13:08
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1$\begingroup$ Next time I see pronoun conflict on the horizon, instead of asking for gender, I'll ask for f(ρ,Θ) $\endgroup$ Dec 23, 2021 at 10:57